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If we say for argument that two objects are in contact withstanding physical properties of atoms that prohibit actual contact at that level of observation.

From classical observation of the world if one of the objects has a force exerted upon it in an opposing direction to that of its contact with the other object.

Just exactly how much time has to occur for them to become separate or to put it another way just what degree of spacial measurement affords there separation.

Without counter arguing any measure of time or measurement, if you grasp the point I'm trying to propose.

Just what scale of measure returns itself an appropriate quantity in this scenario or is it a question of the logic and definition of the language I am using to give a picture of the scenario?

  • This is a physics question, not a philosophy question. – Lee Daniel Crocker May 1 '18 at 21:40
  • @LeeDanielCrocker: Theres an argument relevant to this question in Aristotles works. I'll let some else find the relevant extract. – Mozibur Ullah May 1 '18 at 22:24
  • @Lee Daniel Crocker that maybe the case but the tag quantification was listed in philosophy. This was primarily the question I was raising as to the nature of quantification. In this scenario you cannot return any quantity because of infinite division which results in an absence of any quantity in the presence of the scenario. Is it half a second a fraction an inch. Or is the logic of the language used in the picture offer an easy solution to the proposition, and I have an incorrect understanding. Conceptually I don't think it is solely in the realm of physics my friend never the less :) – user29363 May 1 '18 at 22:30
  • So? We've learned a few things since Aristotle's time. His ideas on science are suitable only for laughing at. – Lee Daniel Crocker May 1 '18 at 22:31
  • Still, this is simple physics. If objects A and B are in "contact" (for some suitable definition of contact--say, within the range of van Der Waals forces), and some force is applied to one side of object A, then the earliest point in time at which object B can feel any effect is the time of the speed of light across object A, since no effect can propogate faster than light. In reality, it will probably be slower. – Lee Daniel Crocker May 1 '18 at 22:36

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