My friend claims that in post modernism no art or philosophy can be hegemonic, but is not a moral relativist. So what about the expression of a moral in a parable.

I would guess, in a rush, no.

closed as off-topic by Conifold, Swami Vishwananda, Jordan S, Mark Andrews, L.M. Student May 5 '18 at 0:36

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "Questions that push a personal philosophy with no question beyond "am I right" or "what do you think" are off-topic here as this is not a blog. It's ok to express unique opinions, but you must have an actual, answerable question to go with them." – Swami Vishwananda, Jordan S
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • Hi, welcome to Philosophy SE. Please visit our Help Center to see what questions we answer and how to ask. One-line posts are discouraged because it is hard to tell from them what people are looking for, and your post reads like a middle of a passage without beginning or end. Please provide the context of the conversation, the meaning of "hegemonic" and details on what it has to do with "expression of a moral in a parable". – Conifold May 2 '18 at 22:12