Philosophers and physicists have been throwing around the idea that "consciousness causes collapse" since the early days of QM. Today most physicists reject this idea, but it seems to me this is motivated by unsubstantiated metaphysical belief (materialism) rather than contrary evidence. In fact, I am convinced that consciousness must play a role in the collapse of the wave function. Here's why.
Right now I am thinking and writing about my observation that I am a conscious being with subjective experience. What does this imply? The reality of my subjective experience has a clear influence on my actions and hence the physical world. Put another way, we act the way we do because we have subjective experience. Moreover, this action could not possibly be determined (in the absolute sense) by classical mechanics or, in fact, any purely mathematical deterministic description of reality. To deny this, you must claim either
a) Subjective experience is a necessary consequence of some physical system (reductionism). Thus a mathematician could hypothetically prove the reality of subjective experience from the laws of physics.
b) I would still be making this post even if I had no consciousness. That is, the decision to write about my subjective experience was not influenced in any way by the fact that I have subjective experience.
Neither of these options seems to hold any water. My conclusion is that subjective experience influences the world in a way that is not determined (completely) by the laws of physics. Of course, we clearly don't have the ability to break the laws of physics. This to me suggests two things:
1) The workings of the human brain cannot be explained in terms of classical mechanics.
2) Consciousness somehow "chooses" a brain state from the long list of possibilities given to us by the Schroedinger Equation. The many-worlds interpretation of QM could only say that we happen to be in a world where I chose to make this post - but this does not take into account the clear influence of my consciousness on the decision.
To be clear, I don't think this is a proof for free will, since I couldn't possibly prove that I had the option to not write about my subjective experience. However, it does seem to suggest that I have a will, free or not, and that QM must play a role.
Is there a flaw in my reasoning?