I want to confirm a sentence, which I have rendered bold below, related to Aristotle's view regarding Thales philosophy in a philosophical article.
In Book I of the Metaphysics, Aristotle claims that the earliest of these, among whom he places the Milesians, explained things only in terms of their matter (Met. I.3 983b6–18). This claim is anachronistic in that it presupposes Aristotle's own novel view that a complete explanation must encompass four factors: what he called the material, efficient, formal, and final causes. Yet there is something in what Aristotle says. Aristotle links Thales' claim that the world rests on water with the view that water was the archē, or fundamental principle, and he adds that “that from which they come to be is a principle of all things” (983b24–25; 11A12). He suggests that Thales chose water because of its fundamental role in coming-to-be, nutrition, and growth, and claims that water is the origin of the nature of moist things.
The point which I would like to confirm is: The subject of the verb "claims" in claims that water is ... is Aristotle. In other words, here the article writer is saying that Aristotle dismissed the generality of Thale's claim and restricted it to the things having the moist nature.
Is it correct?