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As I understand, a priori statements are propositions that are conceived independently of one's experience.

However, the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy states that

The sensible world, or the world of appearances, is constructed by the human mind from a combination of sensory matter that we receive passively and a priori forms that are supplied by our cognitive faculties. We can have a priori knowledge only about aspects of the sensible world that reflect the a priori forms supplied by our cognitive faculties. In Kant’s words, “we can cognize of things a priori only what we ourselves have put into them” (Bxviii). So according to the Critique, a priori knowledge is possible only if and to the extent that the sensible world itself depends on the way the human mind structures its experience.

I gather from this that our mind and our experience work jointly to know the world. As an example, our mind might provide us with two priori propositions:

1) Our world is necessarily causal. 2) Our world isn't necessarily causal.

Drawing from our experience, we will conclude that the proposition 1 is the priori that describes our world. (Edit) Hence in such a manner, our mental cognition works together with our experience to know the intelligible world.

Is this inference from the passage accurate?

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    What "a priori" means to Kant is subtle, SEP specifically discusses how "independent of experience" does not mean what one might think. Despite his declarations that "knowledge that is absolutely independent of all experience" he also says that "concepts without intuitions are empty", i.e. experience is needed at least to grasp the concepts if not to justify the claims. But I doubt that Kant would endorse "more or less attuned to our world" gradations where justification is concerned. It is either a priori, or it isn't. – Conifold Aug 13 '18 at 5:36
  • @Conifold Does the edit now makes sense us? – mathnoob123 Aug 13 '18 at 12:28

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