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Would the opacity of everyday motivations seriously undermine Kantian categorical imperative (CI)?

I tend not to use the CI when deciding what is moral, and partly because I'm not sure I know what my motivations are. What's stopping me from working out a motivation that allows some action, according to Kant's formulation of the CI, and going with it? Wouldn't that make a mockery of the formulation?

  • I made an edit which you may roll back or continue editing. Would you have any more context to add to the question such as what you are reading that motivates the question? This would help focus any answers. – Frank Hubeny Aug 15 '18 at 15:00
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    If you work out a motivation 'that allows some action, according to Kant's formulation of the CI, and [go] with it', how can you not know in this case what your motivation is ? You have worked out your motivation and gone with it, which I assume means 'acted on it'. Where is the opacity ? – Geoffrey Thomas Aug 15 '18 at 15:33

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