I am not sure I understand the idea properly.

Moreover, why are philosophers so interested in quantum mechanics? What philosophical implications could quantum mechanics have?

  • I made some edits which you may roll back or continue editing. You can see the versions by clicking on the "edited" link above. The question is a bit broad. If you have any more information about why this interests you such as a quote from an author this would help someone provide an answer that is relevant to your interests. Welcome to this SE! – Frank Hubeny Sep 26 '18 at 17:05
  • For the second question please read SEP's Philosophical Issues in Quantum Theory. – Conifold Sep 26 '18 at 17:43
  • You might be interested in reddit.com/r/askphilosophy/comments/2fhpcg/… – Sebastian Sep 26 '18 at 19:10
  • To motivate the second question, why wouldn't they be? Why would philosophers not be interested in the fundamental physical theory that our best physics says the world obeys? And additionally, when that theory seems so counterintuitive and surprising when compared to our common sense view of the world, don't you think that's a justification for philosophers to be interested in it as well? Would you ask the same question as to why philosophers are interested in other fundamental scientific principles, like genetics and evolution for example? – Not_Here Sep 26 '18 at 20:05
  • We're living in a simulation. The quantum nature of reality is pretty much proof of that. Philosophers really ought to put some effort into what that might mean for us.. and how we might communicate with.. or otherwise influence the simulation. – Richard Sep 27 '18 at 0:01

Because Humean Supervenience is based in contingency. This implies that no two objects or states can differ without an in-equivalence of at least one quality or property. Quantum Mechanics negates this presumption, as most famously demonstrated in Schrödinger's cat, where two opposite states are simultaneously true until observed.

  • Ok, now It is clearer. I will read the article on SEP. – Mortimer Sep 26 '18 at 17:46

Imagine two identical worlds A and B, that both only consist in conducting the same indeterministic/random/quantum experiments 10 times. They only differ with respect to the probability measure that is associated with the experiment. However even though the probability measures are different, we could still obtain the same results in world A and world B, which would make the worlds identical in the humean sense . It is therefore possible that two worlds are identical according to the humean mosaic, however they differ in the underlying probability distributions. This cannot be according to Humean supervenience.

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