I have some questions related to Wheeler's ideas of "It from bit" and "Law without law"
In summary, these both theories postulate that there was an initial universe with no laws from which laws of physics appeared from informational processes (It from bit)
In a book ("The Hidden Pattern" by Ben Goertzel) it is said "John Archibald Wheeler's (1988) idea of “law without law” and “it from bit” —which hypothesizes that the laws of our physical universe are in some sense optimal, so that if someone has an objective or physical world with unformed, indefinite laws, the laws will eventually settle into the optimal law configuration (being the laws of our universe)"
- Assuming Wheeler was right and According to Wheeler's "it from bit" and "law without law", could the optimal laws have been different? If I understand these theories correctly, the initial universe did not have any laws/rules and the laws were created by the informational processes of "it from bit". Because of this, could these informational processes have created different rules/processes that would give as a result a different universe with different laws? I mean, could the initial lawless/ruleless-universe have evolved differently, giving as a result a different universe with different laws (not only our own set of laws)? Arbitrarily different?
Since the initial universe did not have any rules, could "it from bit" have created radically different truly fundamental laws and rules? Could it have created a different universe behaving even according to fundamentally different types of mathematics/logic? Could it have created a universe with fundamentally different computability/information theory? Could it have created a universe where uncomputable or even illogical/logically impossible/indescribable/nonexistent/impossible things could be computed? Since the initial universe would not have any rules, would it from bit be adjusted to computability and information theory? Or would computability/information theory not exist in the initial universe, and because of that, "it from bit" could do things outside of them (could do things forbidden by them)? Would the same happen with logic (Did the initial universe behave according to some type of mathematics/logic or they did not exist at the initial universe)?
If the above would be right and the universe could have behaved according to radically/fundamentally different laws/maths/logic, could "it from bit" processes have created a universe behaving according to paraconsistent logic ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Paraconsistent_logic) or a trivialism (a system where every statement/"thing" would be true and false at the same time: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trivialism, it could be called an illogical system)? (the consequences of both systems would be uncomputable, but if it from bit created computability and information theory, could they have created a different computability or information theory where they would be computable?) Or, since things in it from bit would derive their existence from solely informational processes, and since the definition of a trivialist/paraconsistent system is a computable definition (otherwise we could not define them), could an it from bit-informational process computing just the solely definition of these systems be enough for these systems to exist? In summary: Could "it from bit" make trivialist/paraconsistent systems exist in a universe?
If the above is right, wouldn't that mean that Wheeler's law without law and it from bit would be an unfalsifiable theory? (Since they could produce all types of universes/outcomes, even impossible/uncomputable/logically impossible/illogical ones.) Also, would they be a multiverse theory? (besides being capable of creating different versions of a given universe, could they create multiple universes at once?)
(I need answers from people that know well these theories. Although this is relate with philosophy, that's why I put this question here, I need answers mostly based on a scientific point of view not only/purely philosophical)