Is an inductive premise an empirical premise?

In developing the principle of equivalence, after seeing that bodies would free fall inertially in a box in space free of gravitation (just as it would on Earth in a gravitational field), Einstein inductively, generalised this for all. Is this inductive premise empirical?

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    If "empirical" means falsifiable, then : YES. We can falisfy it with a suitable experiment. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Dec 27 '18 at 14:30
  • Thanks, by empirical, I mean something that is observationally verifiable or falsifiable. What suitable experiment could one use to show that induction is an empirical premise? – Anmol Grover Dec 27 '18 at 15:03
  • Science is 'abductive'. That is.. it is not inductive or deductive. But rather a pragmatic mixture of the two which accepts that it is not possible to make a complete set of observations.. therefore all predictions made are potentially false. It only takes one sighting of a black swan to refute the prediction that all swans are white. Not all science is empirical either. Some predictions are inductive. But all predictions are subject to empiricism ultimately. Can you find a triangle in which internal angles sum to more than 180 degrees? – Richard Dec 27 '18 at 23:37

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