What difference is there between scientifically testable premises and personal biases that are tested?

That's, when is it possible to do scientific probing that is not somehow subjectively-oriented?

It seems intuitively that at least values must be entangled in everything. Even if some physics research had some sense of "objectivity" in terms of measurements, the action of "doing research" is a value choice.

Further, what does this mean for scientific investigation? Should the amount of premises/assumption be as small as possible? In order to not complicate the "possible interpretations"? But how could one discover patterns based on a large number of variables, unless one studies a large number of variables? Should the experiment design base on trying to select an approach that best suits the given resources and the goal in mind?

closed as unclear what you're asking by Dan Hicks, Eliran, Frank Hubeny, virmaior, Dcleve Jan 14 at 21:42

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  • It might be useful to add a reference that would clarify the context of the question. Does something you are reading present this question or suggest it in some way? – Frank Hubeny Jan 5 at 14:37
  • All observations are subjective, so yes, personal subjectivity is entangled in everything. However, this does not mean there is no difference between scientific testing, and other forms of evaluation/confirmation. – Dcleve Jan 14 at 21:41
  • As for your question -- you have posted a collection of questions, that include subjectivity/objectivity, the boundary definition of science, how to do science despite subjectivity, how to use Occam's razor, how to deal with the way evidence always underspecifies vs. theory, how to analyze big data, and how to do experimental design. This "question" basically calls for a textbook on philosophy of science, to answer. it is far too broad for Phil/SE. – Dcleve Jan 14 at 21:42