0

Given that there are over 300 references to slavery in Nietzsches work did he, in any of his works, address what was the most significant revival of slavery since Graeco-Roman times, that is the trans-Atlantic slavery trade?

If so, how does he square it with his theory of the ubermenschen (superman) and untermenschen (subhuman) and with slavery being an essential part of aristocratic society, neccessary for aristocrats to secure and preserve their privileges of being aristocrats?

Further, one Nietzschean scholar pointed out that though Nietzsche attracts a great deal of commentary there is very little scrutiny of his political philosophy in regards to slavery. Is this merely because Nietzschean scholarship is - I'm supposing - mostly from a white European background, or are there deeper reasons?

  • He linked the "salvation and future of the human race with the unconditional dominance" of master morality and called master morality "a higher order of values, the noble ones, those that say Yes to life, those that guarantee the future." Just as "there is an order of rank between man and man," there is also an order of rank "between morality and morality." Indeed, Nietzsche waged a philosophic war against the slave morality of Christianity in his "revaluation of all values" in order to bring about the victory of a new master morality that he called the "philosophy of the future". Wikipedia – Bread Jan 20 at 11:46
  • Nietzsche's idea of slave is different than the actual "a human that is a property of another human". It is that one is just a weakling. One can't do what he wishes and blames others for his own weakness. – rus9384 Jan 20 at 12:47
  • @Bread: It seems the human race was doing very well without N coming along and telling us we’ve got it wrong. He’s basically an aristocrat who wants to roll back all the political freedoms gained since the French Revolution, and even earlier. As far as I see it he’s swimming against the tide of time. – Mozibur Ullah Jan 21 at 22:14
  • @rus9384: That’s not a notion new to N he’s appropriated it from ancient ethics about slavish nature’s which justified their system of slavery. Does this mean that N was being slavish in being a ‘weakling’ when he collapsed mentally in the last decade of his life? – Mozibur Ullah Jan 21 at 22:17
  • 1
    @rus9384: And ‘weaklings’, do they have a ‘choice’ in being weak? I can’t say I think much of that defence. Most people have strengths and weaknesses, and this varies during their lifetime; dividing the entire human race into a tiny elite of the strong and a large mass of weak strikes me as something of a joke. – Mozibur Ullah Jan 21 at 22:22

Your Answer

By clicking "Post Your Answer", you acknowledge that you have read our updated terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy, and that your continued use of the website is subject to these policies.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.