I think, from memory, Hegel said that the absolute truth can be known through a dialectical process between the object and the thing-in-itself. But, how does that differ from Kant's opinion on the same matter? I don't remember what Kant said about the absolute truth.

  • Kant said we cannot know absolute truth. The 'thing-in-itself' would be unknowable. I'd;say Hegel's view is considerably more sophisticated. Kant points us towards mysticism but Hegel more or less pushes us down the rabbit-hole. . . – user20253 Feb 23 '19 at 12:24
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    @PeterJ: Well, Kant's Fact of Reason (consciousness of the Moral Law) is what comes closest to what he calls intellectual intuition, i.e. direct insight into the real fabric of the noumenal, although he is careful to point out that the FoR is exactly not to be understood as theoretical knowledge. In some respects, Kant and Hegel are closer than most authors acknowledge, since both emphasise that it is only in practice (i.e. active grappling with nature) that we get a glimpse at the absolute. – Philip Klöcking Feb 23 '19 at 15:03
  • @PhilipKlöcking - Do either of them claim to have had 'glimpses of the absolute? I feel they are both heading in the same theoretical direction, as you say, and that it's the correct one, but still have a way to go to catch up with the descriptive theories of those who claim it is possible to know the absolute. I admire both, though, for going deeper than most. – user20253 Feb 24 '19 at 11:34

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