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Can there be any difference between the existence of things we sense directly and things we sense using instruments like microscope? Along the same lines , is it possible that some objects around us exist independent of us and others as a creation of our mind?

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    How do you imagine such a "difference"? What does "can there be any difference" mean? Why would there be? Why would you think that? Until now, your question sounds absolutely unreasonable to me.
    – iphigenie
    Commented Feb 17, 2013 at 11:35

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"Objects" are coherent clusters of properties that our minds distinguish and/or imagine. In this sense even when an object corresponds to something real ("thing per se", "noumenon"), as soon as one considers this part of reality as something separate and distinguished by particular properties under one's consideration, it is the creation of one's mind, that one is now dealing with: with some properties and relations unknown, others ignored and yet others mistaken about.

Inserting a microscope between an object and the inquiring mind serves but to remind the mind of this its own property.

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If we agree that eyes are just as instrument as microscope then only difference is in our confidence about correctness of these instruments.

What did you mean by "object exists as creation of our mind or independent of us"?
Anyway, my answer. Distinctive objects with concrete borders are "made" by ourselves (we construct them in our minds as mental constructs because it's useful for us) but the reality, which will continue its existence even without any of us, is united.

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  • i mean the materialist and idealist views about matter.Isn't a mixture of these views possible?
    – Halil Duru
    Commented Feb 18, 2013 at 5:09

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