Am I correct to assume there is a feud between academics considering Shakespeare's social origins? I understand that he was probably born as a member of the working classes (or even the Elizabethan underclass), but his skill might suggest something equivalent to what is portrayed in the film Anonymous, where Shakespeare was a noble who wrote under the name of a commoner. What is the state of this debate? What sources could I read that summarize it?
closed as off-topic by Not_Here, Geoffrey Thomas♦ Mar 13 at 16:49
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Was Shakespeare a member of the lower classes?
For sure, not a noble.
You can see : Lois Potter, The Life of William Shakespeare : A Critical Biography (Blackwell, 2012), page 2 and 3 :
John Shakespeare [(William’s father) was] chamberlain or acting chamberlain of Stratford-upon-Avon from 1561 to 1565, [he] had been heavily involved with maintenance and improvement of Corporation buildings.
Mary Shakespeare [born Mary Arden] family name derived from the forest of Arden, which contains the villages in which all the pre-1500 Shakespeares lived.