The real world is the totality of all objects existing in it. i.e. every object that exists in the real world is a PART of the real world.
An infinite is defined as having a part of it that doesn't have a beginning in the real world.
For whatever beings to exist in the real world, there must exist (in the real world) something that existed (in the real world) before it, that caused it to begin existence in the real world.
If every cause of a beginning in the real world, must itself have a beginning in the real world.
Then this leads to
- an infinite set of objects existing in the real world, thus the real world is infinite!
If there is no infinite set of objects in the real world [call this sentence K], and if we hold 1, then:
4.there must be a beginner in the real world, that doesn't have a beginning in the real world, thus the real world is infinite!
To reject that, we need to falsify 1. That is, there can exist objects in the real world that have a spontaneous beginning, i.e. no object before them existed in the real world that caused their beginning of existence in the real world. But this is like saying that: a thing can come from nothing. This way the real world can be a finite realm that originated from nothing. Which is absurd! Because nothing cannot give rise to something, since it's nothing.
So the real world must be infinite!
Although I made up this argument, this argument must have been proposed a long time ago.
Had this argument, or an argument similar to it been advanced before? what's its name?
There must have been a investigation as to whether the real world is finite or not, what's the relevance of the above argument to that investigation?