The first thing I noticed when reading continental philosophers is that they make statements about the truth without any empirical or logical basis such that the statements were made on a completely arbitrary basis. This is especially true for Hegel, but also to a much lesser extent Heidegger, Heidegger at least seems to be rely a lot more on logic than Hegel such that it's much harder to detect statements that seem to have made on a completely arbitrary basis. I am wrong to think that?

Philosophers like Kant used philosophical ideas and models to explain things like scientists, and his ideas were pretty much grounded in logic, it wasn't really the case with Hegel, and arguably Heidegger.

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    +1 I like this question, but I hope it doesn't get closed because of how it's worded. As someone with an "analytic" bent, I also have trouble understanding postmodern/continental philosophy and their method. The few times I've been brave enough to try reading (some of) them, they don't seem to define their terms, make arguments, defend/criticize premises, etc. like analytic philosophers, so I also would like to know how they "do business". – Adam Sharpe Apr 23 at 14:20
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    Hegel imagined a different logic; see Hegel’s Dialectics. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Apr 23 at 16:04
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    I think it is fairer to say that continental philosophers have a different set of standards and allowances in their discourse, the reasoning by loose association is intentional. They are casting a wider net, so to speak, in hopes of catching a bigger fish, relations that are roughly/morally/vaguely true, but would not would not hold up under stricter scrutiny because the input is too open to interpretation to begin with (history, society, culture, etc.). Think of the relation between Enlightenment and power, for example. This is particularly true of Hegel, Marx, Heidegger, Adorno or Badiou. – Conifold Apr 23 at 18:42
  • You may want to study Hegel more closely. – Gordon Apr 30 at 5:07

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