I have read some people argue that if there was a God that created, his creation was imperfect because we have a potentiality and thus making him act in an imperfect way, and not being pure actuality. I would argue that an absolutely perfect God couldn't create an absolutely perfect being, because the creation would be identical to the creator and thus not having anything that seperates them, and it is one. Is creation then pure actuality because there is no potentiality of it being absolute perfect? I have a hard time to grasp around that question myself, might have formulated it weird.

  • How do you define "perfect"? – curiousdannii Jun 2 '19 at 13:11
  • And many would argue that once something is defined as being beyond human comprehension it is futile to then try to use reason in connection with it... – christo183 Jun 2 '19 at 14:29
  • Aquinas: The process of becoming leads naturally to God, who is pure being and actuality. The culmination of this process, though, is possible only in the next life and only works of virtue, that is, performance of the will of God, can lead to this culmination. Thus, the will achieves its goal, which is happiness, only when it is at one with the Divine Will. (Note a quote, this is a Spark Notes Summary). – Gordon Jun 2 '19 at 16:40
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    An absolutely perfect God couldn't create an absolutely perfect being for the simple reason that being created subtracts from perfection. Created absolute perfection is an oxymoron, like round square, which an absolutely perfect God can't create either. – Conifold Jun 2 '19 at 20:02
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    I think it's a perfectly reasonable question and I didn't vote to close it. I even upvoted because I think I understand what you're asking, though I'm reading between the lines a bit. But I do have some advice if you want to get it reopened: given you say in your "About me" that you're interested in Aquinas, you might add that you're asking the question in the context of Thomism, and add just a little more context. BTW, welcome to Philosophy SE!! There's also a Christianity Stack Exchange too, if you're interested in exclusively Christian answers: christianity.stackexchange.com – Adam Sharpe Jun 2 '19 at 21:26

Depends on definition of perfect

One definition of "perfect" (and "ideal") is by functionality. For example, primary function of knife is to cut - therefore cuts of ideal knife would be infinitesimally thin and smooth , there would be no resistance or ragged edges. Considering that in this world infinitesimally thin is not possible (size of atoms and molecules), cuts of the perfect knife would not be completely ideal, but they would be best possible.

Now, defining perfect being or at least perfect man is not that simple : what would be his primary function ? Things get religious at this point : for example in Christianity perfect man is Jesus Christ, because he accept will of God absolutely and never strayed from his path . Note that even Jesus was not ideal, because even he was afraid sometimes (in Gethsemane garden night before they seized him) . Church (Catholic) confirms his fear. Pope Benedict VI says :

What Jesus says to the three disciples whom he wants near him during his prayer at Gethsemane shows that he feels fear and anguish in that “Hour”, experiencing his last profound loneliness precisely while God’s plan is being brought about. Moreover Jesus’ fear and anguish sums up the full horror of man in the face of his own death, the certainty that it is inescapable and a perception of the burden of evil that touches our lives.

Jesus also sweated, bled, went hungry and generally had all weakness of a man made from flesh and blood, yet he is still considered as perfect because he was best possible man under circumstances.

Question now arises did God made "best possible world" (Leibniz), therefore should beings in this world simply strive to be best possible what ever they are, or we could conclude that this world is poorly made and blame its creator for that. But that is whole another topic.

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  • I don't know of any Christians or Christian denominations that would say Jesus was afraid... Do you have references for that? – curiousdannii Jun 2 '19 at 22:15
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    @curiousdanii : How do you read Matthew26:36-45 "let this cup pass" 3 times; "spirit is willing but flesh is weak" etc – Rusi-packing-up Jun 3 '19 at 2:00
  • @curiousdannii In addition to comment put by Rusi, you could google whole range of articles about Agony in the Garden of Gethsemane, and was Jesus afraid in Gethsemane. Also this : christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/42753/… – rs.29 Jun 3 '19 at 17:50
  • @Rusi How you interpret it isn't an answer to which denominations teach it. – curiousdannii Jun 3 '19 at 22:17
  • @curiousdannii You are wrong, even pope (Benedict VI) thinks that Jesus felt fear : "What Jesus says to the three disciples whom he wants near him during his prayer at Gethsemane shows that he feels fear and anguish in that “Hour”, experiencing his last profound loneliness precisely while God’s plan is being brought about." w2.vatican.va/content/benedict-xvi/en/audiences/2012/documents/… – rs.29 Jun 4 '19 at 6:55

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