Can we measure or evaluate the aesthetic sense of a person? Like, can we statistically say that Person A has a superior aesthetic sense to Person B? Since beauty is relative, can we truly 'grade' someone's aesthetics?


My question is not a duplicate like a kind user suggested in the comments, my question asks for the measure of a person's aesthetic sense, while the other question, that the user pointed out my question is a possible duplicate of, questions the existence of objective criteria for judging beauty (of art).

I apologize for the confusion.

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    We can, the question is how objective such evaluations are. The topic is controversial, but many thinkers (e.g. Kant) argued that there is some measure of normativity to tastes that makes them not merely subjective, see SEP Aesthetic Judgment.
    – Conifold
    Jun 26, 2019 at 11:38
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    Possible duplicate of Are there objective criteria for aesthetic judgment?
    – Jordan S
    Jun 26, 2019 at 12:02
  • @Conifold thanks for the answer. But the measure of normativity, I believe, translates to popular opinion, doesn't it? And it doesn't necessarily mean that popular opinion is always the most objective.
    – ojassethi
    Jun 26, 2019 at 12:08
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    I don't think this is a duplicate. One question suggested as a duplicate wants objective measures for a work of art. This asks for an objective measure of the person experiencing the art. Jun 26, 2019 at 13:02
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    @another_name the thing is that I don't think we can find grade a person's aesthetic sense. To be able to truly do that, we need a perfectly unbiased authority, which is impossible, cause, let's face it, we are humans. Even if we create some sort of computer systems, they're still created by us and are bound to have some bias. I think that you CANNOT truly judge a person's aesthetics. I feel it's extremely relative. I appreciate your comment.
    – ojassethi
    Jun 27, 2019 at 10:01

1 Answer 1


Taking your assumption that beauty is relative and subjective. Meaning no one can claim that the statement: "Object A is more beautiful than object B." is true or false since it would have no truth value.

If it were impossible to graduate beauty (notice degrees of beauty) it would be impossible to judge one's aesthetic sense (ability to measure beauty).

However, if there are objective criteria for measuring beauty there could be imperfect methods of judging aesthetic sense.

For example. Taking the Formalist or Structuralist Approach to objectively grading art. Present different artworks, previously graded by a committee on its beauty (taking into account symmetry, composition, etc.), to a person and calculate the graded person's precision using statistics. Then compare his RMSE, AUC or whatever is applicable to others.

I am by no means an expert. Here's an in-depth analysis of beauty by one of the most cited philosophical sources.


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