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When discussing whether Muslims can successfully integrate into American culture, it is important to consider the political component of Islamic teachings known as Sharia Law.

For Islam, Sharia Law is supposed to be the supreme law of the land, overriding all else. But in the United States the Constitution is considered Supreme. So if there is a conflict between the two legal systems, this creates what might be considered aa a political logical contradiction.

If two legal systems which contradict each other are accepted as compatible, then one can deduce any result (A contradiction implies any conclusion). Because of this it is imperative to resolve whether there is a contradiction or not.


note: a referee has claimed that this question does not show research effort. That is false. This is a version of a well-researched and documented question. One source, www.politicalislam.com claims that there is a contradiction in values. Other sources claim there is no contradiction in values.

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    There is no conflict with our legal system qua law for the simple reason it is not law here, period. However, there could be some issues enter via First Amendment. This is my quick take on it. Transfer to LegalSE? – Gordon Jul 2 '19 at 4:37
  • Here are some examples of where Sharia Law has been accepted in the US: (1) zwemercenter.com/… ; (2) huffpost.com/entry/sharia-law-usa-states-ban_n_3660813 – Sacrebleu The Prophet Jul 2 '19 at 4:47
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    "If two legal systems which contradict each other are accepted as compatible, then one can deduce any result". This would be true if one used formal classical logic, but that is not how legal reasoning works. Laws often clash even within a single legal system, the result is not explosion but prioritization, one of the conflicting norms is taken to take precedence (US Constitution in this case). Informal argumentation is not modeled well by classical logic, which is why your question is better suited for Law SE. – Conifold Jul 2 '19 at 6:28
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    I took a look at your first set of cases again, and it really makes my point. Note that the US Courts are the "decider" (based on our law, statutes, cases, treaties, etc. ) they hold all the "chips" to put it crudely. Laws can be changed, the Constitution amended in the future with who knows what changes, but the very fact you are in a US court today, state, federal etc makes a very basic point. – Gordon Jul 2 '19 at 8:09
  • The Koran does not describe "Sharia Law". Taking religious habits described in the Koran and collected and supplemented in the Sharia as law is but a single tradition of it, and not necessarily a truthful one at that. Nowhere in the Koran it is stated that states should prescribe the habits as law, it is in conflict with the comparatively lenient position towards tolerance within the Koran. That being said, the third hit on Google has a Washington Post interview with a Muslim professor on that... – Philip Klöcking Jul 2 '19 at 11:48
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From Huff Post you cited: "In the United States, there are no Islamic courts, but judges sometimes have to consider Islamic law in their decisions. For example, a judge may have to recognize the validity of an Islamic marriage contract from a Muslim country in order to grant a divorce in America."

Note this is a US State Court deciding what to use looked at through the lens of State law.

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