We all understand that Given A = C, and B = C, Then A = B.
However, A is not “the same as” B.
A is the question, “What animals have feathers and can fly?”
B is the question, “What was the primary subject of artist John James Audubon?”
C is an answer, “Birds.”
We can say both A and B = C, and this relationship is bidirectional.
“Birds” ARE “Animals with feathers and can fly”
“Animals with feathers and can fly” ARE “Birds”
however A is certainly not “the same question” as B. They are not interchangeable in most contexts.
An example of the philosophical dillema this poses came to me on this site in fact. It was regarding the idea of “duplicate questions” where something which had answers "same as" another were therefore deemed to have "same questions." It's obviously false but logically how is this fallacy argued? A commenter rationalized the fact that because it had "the same" answer as another question, they were "the same" questions.
The exact illogical argument is below:
“@VogonPoet - Fair enough. In that case, it is definitely a duplicate. All of the other races mention in 'The Chase' are addressed in the top answer to the duplicate question. –"
Please do not simply restate the problem. This question tries to identify the philosophical difference between two similar expressions which often frustrate good communication, there is a tendency for responses to simply recouch the problem from a different angle or say “it just is.” Respect the quality of the site please. Thank you!