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I am reading some extracts from Hume's "treaties" and some papers which have been released on them, but I still do not fully understand Hume's position on moral judgement.

Hume states that moral judgement is based solely on passions, or at least that reason alone is not sufficient for moral judgement. However, what I don't fully understand is this. Given that a person witnesses an action, their reaction (ie: declaring it moral/immoral) should be based on whether the impresson such action has on them produces pain or pleasure.

However, it seems to me that in some instances Hume claims that the impression made by the judgement society will give to the individual's judgement (ie: "what will people think about person X if they support a certain position) will be more important than what the person really feels about an event. For example, a person may support Hitler in the Holocaust (I know, I'm not particularly imaginative in my examples, but at least I get to make my point :) ), but as this position would be condemned by the majority of people, they will be drawn to feel otherwise about it.

closed as unclear what you're asking by Joseph Weissman Jan 7 '16 at 23:33

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I'm not sure what the question is here.

But I want to point out that an individual moral passions at an act are not at variance with it being modified by his understanding of how that act and his own passion is viewed by society.

For, a man does not come into being and fully present into a society.

He is born into a situation, generally a family; and is schooled by parents and society - which can be understood as a dialectic between his own self and others (Lacans Mirror). That consciousness is not readily apparent to the child; and perhaps only to the man when he wishes or is forced to reflect on it.

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    The question was about Hume .. – Dr Sister Aug 6 '13 at 13:30

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