The term gas-lighting means:
manipulate (someone) by psychological means into doubting their own sanity.
This is given in individual terms; by this, I mean that gaslighting is done by some-one to some-one. But can gas-lighting have an ideological resonance? For example, Hannah Arendt wrote in her book, The Origins of Totalitarianism (a notion that, by the way, not unique to her, it was theorised also in Raymond Arons Totalitarianism & democracy):
Totalitarian politics - far from being simply anti-semitic or racist or imperialist or communist - use and abuse their own ideological and political elements until the basis of factual reality, from which the ideologies originally derived their strength and their propaganda value - the reality of the class struggle, for instance or the interest conflicts between Jews and their neighbours - have all but disappeared.
One might say that this is gas-lighting the terms in general. Except of course, terms, in general, have no life of their own, they are held, thought and argued by people. Thus the above can only mean the 'abuse' of an entire segment of the intelligentsia. But given that means that the entire factual basis of reality is undermined -it seems to me that this has a distinct resonance with gas-lighting.
Q. Can we take ideological gas-lighting as evidence of a totalitarian structure within capitalist society?