1

In my intro to philosophy class, our teacher presented us with "Kant's revolutionary thesis":

There are synthetic a priori propositions. They must be [necessarily are] true without appealing to experience (i.e. they are a priori) yet the predicate is not logically contained within the subject (i.e. they are synthetic).

I assume Hume would not have accepted this but on what lines could he have replied to Kant? ...I may need a plain English explanation.

  • 3
    Hume died in 1776, Critique of Pure Reason came out in 1781, so he couldn't reply. Kant assumed that Hume would accept his synthetic a priori "if he only paid attention to mathematics", you assume the opposite (not clear why), and generally, who knows. You can look at Hume's Answer to Kant by Falkenstein for a reconstruction based on passages from Hume's Treatise I.iii.8-13, which Kant likely haven't read. But it is more of a rebuttal of Kant's criticisms than a reply to his proposal. – Conifold Nov 26 '19 at 4:25
  • 1
    Do correct "their are". – Mark Andrews Nov 26 '19 at 5:40
  • I've corrected it for him. Best - Geoff – Geoffrey Thomas Nov 26 '19 at 9:00

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.