3

In Hobbes Leviathan, chapter II: The imagination he writes:

That when a thing lies still, unless somewhat else stirs it, it will lie still forever, is a truth no man doubts of. But that when a thing is in motion, it will be eternally in motion, unless somewhat else stay it, though the reason be the same, that nothing an change itself, is not so easily assented to.

Is this something that he gets from Aristotle?

4

On the contrary, he's paraphrasing Galileo's refutation of Aristotle, i.e. Galileo's law of inertia: an object in motion will remain in motion unless compelled to stop by an outside influence.

  • of course; For some reason I thought Galileo was born after Hobbes... – Mozibur Ullah May 14 '13 at 23:21

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.