A quantum system consists of some states. It is in all of the states but beCAUSE of the act of the measurement, the wavefunction collapses into one state. I am really confused because I can repeat the same measurement and get different results at each time! The probability to get a specific outcome is considered to be a function of the wavefunction, but this is not what I mean. This is OK, but when it comes to predicting the outcome of each measurement, it becomes acausal in my opinion, but I am not sure. I have tried to bring my confusion from my mind to stack exchange and this is the result: If performing exactly similar observations yields to different outcomes, so it means that the cause of each outcome (=observation) is not enough to determine the outcome. So, what else contributes in determining the outcome to be what it is after each measurement? There is no other cause (that we don't know) because if there was any, it would be that hidden variable that realists like Einstein believed to exist and we are assuming the orthodox interpretation here.Therefore, the only other thing that can contribute in determining the outcome is the system itself. For instance, the electron decides to which state to go! This means that the rest of this causality must be filled by the system itself, so the system must change itself. This is impossible because of the same reason that I cannot pull myself up the ground by pulling my hair upward! (or in mechanics, the third law of Newton explains why something can't change itself by exerting a net force on itself!).
MY QUESTION: So, here is my question: I assumed causality and orthodox viewpoint and arrived at either 1- rejecting orthodox by accepting realism or 2- accepting that systems can cause themselves to be changed. None is logical as the first is in contradiction to my assumption and second is in contrast with the third law of Newton. So, the two assumptions I made are incompatible, that is, they cannot coexist. So, the Copenhagen interpretation and causality cannot be both true, and so the orthodox viewpoint is acausal. Now, is this argument true? If no, why and if yes, which one do you accept to be true: the causality or the Copenhagen interpretation of QM?