0

In Indian syllabi, students of Physics are told that Aristotle wrongly believed that an external force was required to keep a body in motion. However, based on the little I've read on Aristotelian terms, it seems that when he talked about motion, it was usually in the sense of moving from potentiality to act, in which case he was technically right.

The reason I'm asking this here is because most results on Google seem to be from amateur Indians who don't know Aristotle or just tutoring websites.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.