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If victim blaming is the fallacy of automatically assigning fault to the victim ("it's her fault because she was dressed that way"), what is the fallacy of exonerating a person simply by virtue of being the victim? Appeal to pity?

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    Assigning blame is a matter of judgment rather than argument, so victim blaming is a psychological bias (prejudice) rather than a fallacy. There is no similar bias the other way, at least not as ingrained. The expression "victim whitewashing" is sometimes used to describe the effect.
    – Conifold
    Jan 8, 2020 at 22:35
  • why would we need to exonerate someone for being a victim? i suppose 'halo effect' or 'ad hominem' have relevance here? ps assigning blame can involve argument and rhetoric, though it may not be a philosophical question [cf nietzsche?]
    – user38026
    Jan 9, 2020 at 3:02
  • it's not really a philosophical question imho, but i guess what you're asking is whether a gullible person who is conned has been stupid and is to blame for their misfortune. most people believe that extreme foolishness -- even if sincere -- is that person's fault: though that of course is an ad populum fallacy
    – user38026
    Jan 9, 2020 at 3:14
  • anyway i downvoted. as well as being suggestive of hostile office politics, the question shows no research effort and is unhelpful
    – user38026
    Jan 9, 2020 at 3:20
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    @another_name Actually this is question is in relation to this tweet: twitter.com/NHTSAgov/status/1214602204222500871 Jan 9, 2020 at 4:32

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