How do we trade-off the rights of the individual woman to drink, against the right of a person to be born without foetal (fetal) alcohol syndrome?

  • There is no "moral value" that can put more weight on the individual pleasure that cause suffering and damages to others. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jan 29 '20 at 14:28
  • Since this depends pretty much on the moral theory you apply and there are some of them which might lead to very different outcomes, I'd like you to be more specific. Applied ethics is a messy field in and of itself and without some focus, you can basically write books about any and every particular problem. – Philip Klöcking Jan 29 '20 at 14:44
  • @Mauro. Of course that's not true. The world is full of examples where the pain of the few is sacrificed for the pleasure and convenience of the many. Alcohol is a perfect example. Do we ban it because of the addictions and alcohol related deaths? No, we say the enjoyment of the larger population trumps them. – Kevin Ryan Jan 29 '20 at 15:06
  • @Philip. Explain what you mean by 'focused'. It's a very simple question. If you can't explain yourself, you give the impression that you close questions that you are afraid of. – Kevin Ryan Jan 29 '20 at 15:10
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    @KevinRyan maybe you can simply ask for references in moral philosophy concerning conflicts between rights that would apply to your example, in particular, rights of fetus. You can look at this entry to make your question more focused and maybe answer part of it plato.stanford.edu/entries/ethics-pregnancy – Quentin Ruyant Jan 30 '20 at 17:46

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