according to Bryant. Specifically, and independent of whether this is stated by him, does it mean that any two terms with the same referent have the same concept (say the same thing)? That the morning star and the evening star are different things?
If so, that's confusing, and probably not only for those loosely familiar with analytic philosophy. Would it mean that causes must not be the same as -- by which I specifically mean already contain -- effects, if we are to refer to them as different things?
Can we infer anything about the nature of causation from the ontic principle, perhaps that any effect is always undergone by its cause?