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What happened with Nozick's idea of the self-subsuming explanation after his Philosophical Explanations?

In particular and actually only, I'm interested to learn about published attempts to use or debunk specifically this notion in the search for the final theory of physics.

closed as unclear what you're asking by Joseph Weissman Jan 3 '16 at 19:17

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  • Gugg, you usually bring us interesting references. Out of curiosity I read the chapter "Why is there something rather than nothing" in the book of Nozik. It reminded me of the writings of Heidegger. Plain of nonsense. The response to nonsense like Heidegger's "The Nothing nothings" is the classic text "The Elimination of Metaphysics Through Logical Analysis of Language" by Rudolf Carnap. Frequently there is arbitrary closure of questions in this site. Often only one person, or 2, and not a reasonable minimum of people in the community, decides to close questions.I am disheartened to write here – Annotations May 29 '13 at 13:11