I have several questions regarding virtue ethics: 1) Let us imagine a person who says something like "money, not virtue makes me happy", and this conclusion is based on one's experience or even rational thought. From Aristotle's point of view, this conclusion is certainly wrong. Does it mean that happiness is objective and it is not up to a person to decide? Then it is completely unclear how to become happy because you can not trust your own feelings anymore. 2) Aristotle claims that all people strive to be happy because it is a natural end of human beings. But If a person says "I don't want to be happy". Is this person mistaken again?

From a religious point of view, these two questions can be easily answered. We can say that God gave humans a certain purpose(which is not up to a human to decide). Fulfilling this purpose(being virtuous) is the only way to become happy. It is more obvious now that first and second individuals are mistaken.

I am curious how would Aristotle answer these questions, without using any religious arguments?

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