If someone has amnesia for a certain experience, was that person conscious of that experience in the past or was that person never conscious at that moment? If that person dies, their memories are gone, and so, can we say that person was never ever conscious? This question is related to Dennett's lack of empirical distinction between Orwellian and Stalinesque interpretations.

  • Perhaps you can edit the question to explain the relation to Dennett. I don't know what the connection is that you have in mind, but otherwise the questions seem trivial. Memory is a consciousness of the past, but consciousness exists in the present. Of course dead people are conscious prior to death, just as a fallen tree was upright before it fell. – Brian Z Jun 26 at 13:29
  • "Amnesia" refers to forgetting what one knew or experienced, so by definition they knew or experienced it. If they were never conscious of something then they never had that conscious experience in the first place, perhaps they experienced it unconsciously (if we allow that, like Freud) or not at all, but neither would be called amnesia. – Conifold Jun 27 at 0:05

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