re section 5 of this SEP https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/ethics-belief/#VarEvi

I understand each has different aims, but I dont see how does the meaning of evidence and Evidentialism change in each case? Im getting confused thinking Prudential- and Moral-aimed activity inherently cannot be forms of Evidentialism.

There are no citations in that sep section, Ive emailed the author and googled the question with no luck.

Thanks for any help

  • Why should the meaning of evidence change? It explicitly states at the top:"In light of the fact that there are different types of value underwriting different types of obligation, there must also be different types of Evidentialism". It is about different types of ends/values the evidence is used to advance, not about its meaning. And there are citations there, of Wood, Chisholm, Adler, etc. – Conifold Jul 3 at 9:37
  • I am taking Evidentialism = believe on the basis of sufficient evidence. My question through the Prudential example: Your spouse is cheating on you but youd be happier living in ignorance. Your aim here is not a belief corresponding to reality/knowledge. What kind of thing is evidence here that forms the prudential belief 'My spouse is not cheating on me'? Prudential has no citation but I stand corrected that Moral has Wood. Epistemic I already understand – kungfuhobbit Jul 3 at 20:16
  • 1
    I am guessing "prudential Evidentialism doesn't enjoy much of a following" explains the lack of citations. It looks more like the author's foil for didactic completeness. But the point seems to be whether beliefs on the basis of evidence (whatever it means) are always beneficial prudentially, and the author's answer seems to be no. As I read it, the point is not selecting some special kind of evidence for forming prudential beliefs, but rather how much of following one's evidence (such as it is) is justifiable from prudence. – Conifold Jul 4 at 5:32

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