I’m aware of the existence of Infinitive as a verb for (‘to’ + base) but my question is moreso based on the derivative portions of the two words and as how they can be applied to a specific meaning, and do others consider this a logical notion: Where “definitive” can be described as ‘that which can be defined’, or ‘to be done in a definitive manner,’ then would the inverse “Infinitive” be capable of existing as referring to ‘that which cannot be defined’? (Since the infinitive of ‘to+base’/to do something in a manner that is not decidedly definite(?) already exists.
For example, by definition of the parts of ‘definitive‘, molecules would be decidedly definitive by nature(and quantitive nature, which is somewhat the main focus in defining the designative factors of the terminology), where a finite amount of atoms exist, and (typically) abstract subject matter such as numbers would be decidedly infinitive by nature due to there being an infinite quantitive existence (sequentially speaking). Also, would other things exist that would likewise be described as “infinitive”, by this definition
Existence of that which is definite, vs. Existence of that which is not definite(the infinite)