This is embarrassing to ask, but
If the wff is '¬(P∧¬S)' and 'P' stands for 'I will buy the pants' and 'S' for 'I will buy the shirt', why does my book in the appendix says that the answer is (a) and not (b) (my translation)?
(a) I won't buy the pants without the shirt. (b) I won't buy both the pants and not the shirt.
I'm guessing both might be correct, but merely paraphrased differently; clearly, (a) is intuitively more understandable than than (b)...
(1) If there is a negation ('¬') before parentheses, shouldn't 'both' be used in the English translation, i.e. as in (b)? I'm asking this because in one other textbook of Logic I remember myself including the 'both' in my translations quite frequently
(2) Why does '¬S' translates into 'without the shirt' and not 'not the shirt'? Why 'without'? Is it because of my initial, possibly correct guess, i.e. that the book's author merely translated a stiff/rigid translation into a simpler and more comprehensible translation?
(3) Are there any tips you can give me when paraphrasing stiff/rigid translations such as (b), into more comprehensible and fluid translations such as (a)?