First, some historical context:
The term apperception originates with René Descartes in the form of the word apercevoir in his book Traité des passions. Leibniz introduced the concept of apperception into the more technical philosophical tradition, in his work Principes de la nature fondés en raison et de la grâce; although he used the word practically in the sense of the modern attention, by which an object is apprehended as "not-self" and yet in relation to the self.
Immanuel Kant distinguished transcendental apperception from empirical apperception.
The wikipedia entry is confused on the rest, but on the separate entry on transcendental apperception
All experience is the succession of a variety of contents (an idea taken from David Hume).
To be experienced at all, the successive data must be combined or held together in a unity for consciousness.
Unity of experience therefore implies a unity of self.
The unity of self is as much an object of experience as anything is. Therefore experience both of the self and its objects rests on acts of synthesis that, because they are the conditions of any experience, are not themselves experienced.
These prior syntheses are made possible by the categories. Categories allow us to synthesize the self and the objects.
First, is this a good summary of what Kant means by transcendental appercetion? Secondly what is empirical apperception and what was Kants rationale for introducing the distinction?