This is probably my longest-lasting point of confusion re: Kant. True, he diagnoses the paralogism very well; but if time is unchanging, inherent in our subjectivity, and in that as constitutive of our sense of identity (over time!), then wouldn't the time-aspect of our minds be permanent?
My confusion is made worse by what I remember of the A edition of the first Critique, something about everyone having their own form of time in a way. If our pure temporal intuition exists so strongly in our particular lives, wouldn't this mean that we were individually immortal?