I always see in a lot of texts that use the idea that infinite regresses are impossible to justify their arguments. But I haven't seen any texts that address infinite regresses themselves. Are infinite regresses actually logically possible?
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1Consider the integers, which are the positive and negative whole numbers, and zero. They line up in their usual order like this: ..., -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ... They satisfy two interesting properties:(1) Every number has an immediate predecessor; and (2) There is no first element. The integers in their usual order are a model of an infinite regress. Everything has a "cause," an immediate predecessor, but there is no first cause. It's clear that the integers are logically possible, we use them every day.– user4894Dec 22, 2020 at 3:33
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If we assume that the soul exists, could that be used to justify the possibility of an infinite regress?– moh abdiDec 22, 2020 at 3:38
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2I know a lot more about the integers than I do about souls. Can't help you on that one. My contribution here is purely mathematical.– user4894Dec 22, 2020 at 3:45
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2Does this answer your question? Is an infinite regress good logic?– ConifoldDec 22, 2020 at 6:17
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First define what you mean by "infinite regress". As a previous comment shows, a mathematical interpretation is perfectly logical, but that doesn't seem to be what you had in mind.– SamDec 22, 2020 at 15:32
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