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Is overdetermination a more broad form of dialectics? Something of a pluralistic "antithesis" maybe? If this is not correct, what is the distinction?

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    In the example: It moves it further away from the “whole” of capitalism, which is rotten. It is to far from true undifferentiated (whole) being which in capitalism is false. The event itself takes on too much importance. Background eprints.whiterose.ac.uk/97865/2/…
    – Gordon
    Mar 2, 2021 at 5:55
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    The whole is untrue (in capitalism) cambridge.org/core/books/adornos-practical-philosophy/…
    – Gordon
    Mar 2, 2021 at 6:00
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    I can only assume Freud had read Spinoza (and maybe Hegel), or as a great thinker he stumbled on this himself.
    – Gordon
    Mar 2, 2021 at 6:25
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    Freud: musictheorythesis.wordpress.com/2012/08/30/…
    – Gordon
    Mar 2, 2021 at 6:41
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    In order to arrive a a singular thing, determination, which exists in a whole set of dream thoughts, you have to kill it, or negate it. I would say all singulars are overdetermined in this way You are taking it out of the context of a whole. There is a paper up there on determination as negation. Spinoza and Hegel. And books on Spinoza and Hegel that I have not read.
    – Gordon
    Mar 2, 2021 at 7:12

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