I am aware of the classical classification of logical calculus as apriori. I have also read pretty much anything I could get my hands on regarding "logic", including "New Essays on the A Priori" edited by Paul Boghossian and Christopher Peacocke.
These readings often mentioned the idea of a deductive inference being carried out without the need of relying on any empirical knowledge. But I am still not convinced about the origin of these, so to speak, rules.
Let's take a basic "modus ponens" as an example. Whenever I know that "if p, then q" and "p", accepting "q" is so much imposing on me, I am not able to deny it. But what exactly does that imply?
Is it somehow within human nature to understand, accept and use deductive inference? Would a hypothetical human being that has NO empirical knowledge (let's say, a human being that has no senses whatsoever, only supplied with raw data directly to his/her brain) still be able to carry out logical inferences?
Or, is "logic" developed on the basis of experiments, exactly the same way any other natural science is? This view would accept as genesis of "modus ponens", the scenario, where i.e. some ancient greek observed that since whenever he threw an apple up, it fell down eventually ("if p, then q"); and because he'd just threw an apple up ("p"), it surely will fall down in a moment ("q"). Our greek repeated this experiment, say, 100 times, and so he'd formulated a law. It's an inductive reasoning.
I am curious about both points of view and maybe not so much about the "classics", as about personal understandings.