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Can somebody explain why the word “why” for example is objectively the word “why” and spelt as such in the English language when it was formed through subjective experience?

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  • Language is "objective" because people use it to communicate with each other, and get corrected when "subjective experience" leads to using words in ways others do not recognize. Since everything people learn is "formed through subjective experience" that is not very useful for distinguishing subjective and objective. – Conifold Mar 19 at 21:49
  • There is no objectivity, only reified intersubjectivity. philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/79366/… – CriglCragl Mar 20 at 0:18
  • The concept of "intersubjectivity" already presupposes the objective existence of other people. This is the fallacy of the stolen concept, where you are using objectivity to deny objectivity. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… – causative Mar 20 at 1:39

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