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It is therefore the greatest happiness which the citizens can enjoy to possess a moderate and convenient fortune; for when some possess too much, and others nothing at [1296a] all, the government must either be in the hands of the meanest rabble or else a pure oligarchy

Which most modern populous countries exhibit rabble or pure oligarchy according to Aristotle?

rabble - tends to be the lower class oligarchy - tends to the be the upper class

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  • Probably Russia and some other post-Soviet "republics" are oligarchies. May 26 at 6:41
  • Aristotle's notion of a government was something of which there were more than a dozen within the country we now call Greece. A good majority among all modern states, especially the ones large enough to be 'federated' to a great degree have both of these problems in different parts, either due to urban and rural distinctions, regional variation, corruption, market segmentation... Within something as small as the City of Chicago, you can find the rabble of gang territory and oligarchies in the Loop dominating various market sectors and trading on their privileges. So this is hard to answer. May 27 at 16:55
  • @hide_in_plain_sight doesn’t America have the super rich.
    – William
    May 27 at 17:06
  • @William. So Aristotle's mean can exist in enclaves of the relatively wealthy or the relatively average, even if that is moderately below average. But that requires slightly lower population density. It cannot happen when the ultra-rich and the relatively poor are just blocks apart. My point is that nowadays, any real government is likely to contain one of these urban areas, each of which does, indeed, have one or the other of his predicted problems. So almost any government has both problems. May 27 at 17:19

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