Substance monism is a very significant part of Spinoza’s philosophy. But after reading the first part of his Ethics, an understanding of his arguments for it eludes me. Specifically, I have trouble wrapping my head around how Spinoza can eliminate the possibility of the following two scenarios:
There exists n>1 substances of the exact same attributes but which have different modes
There exists n>1 substances, all of which have different attributes
Any insight would be appreciated.