What fallacy/fallacies is this? Faulty Generalization? Ad Hominem? Association fallacy? False Cause? All? Others?
For context, this has been said in the forum of a political party in the context of a vote regarding equalizing the rights of gay families to those or conventional families, which some parties rejected or abstained from, not necessarily out of homophobia (and definitely with no connection whatsoever to the actual voters of those parties).
Edit, to clarify:
- The accused parties are not homophobic.
- The policy is not rejected due to homophobia.
- There is no reason to believe all or even the majority of their voters are homophobic
- Even if the above where true, there is no way the accuser could know without doing extensive statistical research, which they have not done, so as it stands, their claim that they can tell if a voter is homophobic based on which party they vote for is absolutely unfounded.