Hello my question is a relatively simple one. But it is also one that seems to have alot of different complicated answers. Unfortunately, I haven't been able to derive a concise clear answer as to why "being able to do otherwise" does not mean having free will.
My friend used the example of a mathematician who gets more adept at deriving a singular correct answer for a math question over time (instead of giving different answers that are wrong). An obviously flawed argument would be that his "ability to do otherwise" decreases as he gets better at solving the question but this is obviously absurd as his "free will" has not been constrained in any way.
The example my friend explained to me was pretty intuitive but I can't seem to find a simple argument to explain that being able to do otherwise is not having free will.
Appreciate any help!