When is an absence a nothingness, completely nothing? I've read all of Heidegger's basic writings, a handful of commentaries on him and lots on Buddhism. Both these topics talk a lot about "nothing" but I am still confused by it.

When we misplace a box with nothing at all inside we haven't really lost its contents.

Does this tell us anything about nothingness? I suspect it may mean real nothingness only occurs inside things that exist. Am I crazy?

  • There is no "nothingness"; thus, we can "perceive" its absence. Nov 28 '21 at 12:22
  • That's definitely one answer @MauroALLEGRANZA The eye is absent form vision and that is not perceived, right? Does that mean its absence is inconceivable and the eye is an "essence" of vision?
    – user56815
    Nov 28 '21 at 13:32
  • 2
    When there is an expectation of something. Nothingess is a gap in the Being (or in the identity) which somehow suddenly isn't quite in full here. philosophy.stackexchange.com/a/45193/28067
    – ttnphns
    Nov 28 '21 at 17:07
  • tidy, thanks @ttnphns I wonder if that includes all species of forethought.
    – user56815
    Nov 28 '21 at 17:57
  • 1
    Does this answer your question? What is the role of mental images in the perception of absence? Nov 29 '21 at 6:51

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