I am just starting to read Kant's Critique of Pure Reason translated by Max Mueller. In the introductory chapter, "General truths, which at the same time, bear the character of an inward necessity, must be independent of experience".
So as I understand - this ^ assumes the existence of "general truths", also called "knowledge a priori" as opposed to "knowledge a posteriori, taken from experience".
Is there any good discussion of this specific assumption about the existence of a priori knowledge? In particular, does it have to exist?
Further on, "even if we remove from experience everything that belongs to the senses, there remain certain original concepts" - this troubles me because how can one remove from experience everything that belongs to the senses? And how can one know that the things that are remain (the pure concepts) are not in some convoluted way related to the senses or the affects?