In the writings of various phenomenologists, the concept of 'ipseity' is widely discussed. As far as I can make out from various sources (e.g. Zahavi, Subjectivity and Selfhood, esp. chapter 5), ipseity is virtually indistinguishable from Kant's transcendental apperception. But phenomenologists seem to treat ipseity as something distinct. Can anyone explain the difference? Thanks!


You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .