Intuitively, it seems yes. However, the more I think about it, it seems no, even though this goes against my intuition.
Imagine if all that the universe consisted of was one game where you won a prize of a million dollars. Let's call this scenario A. The chance of winning was 1 in a million. Now, suppose there is only one person who plays it and he wins.
Now imagine if all that the universe consisted of was this one game but a million people played it. Let's call this scenario B. Now, suppose one of out these people wins.
Intuitively, it seems that it is more likely for scenario A to involve cheating than scenario B. But is this solely because the first scenario has a lower probability of happening by chance or is it because the probability of it being cheated with is higher than the former probability?
What if, say, there was no known way to cheat these games. The games had been rigorously tested and there was simply no known natural way to interfere with these games. What then?