I am a bit confused about what is the position of relativism with respect to objective truths.
Protagoras was the foundational relativist philosopher:
According to Plato, Protagoras thought: Each thing appears (phainesthai) to me, so it is for me, and as it appears to you, so it is for you—you and I each being a man. (Theaetetus 152a 6–8).
But, as far as I can tell from the SEP entry on Protagoras and after reading the dialogue, he does not explicitly deny every absolute truth:
Protagoras’ aim is not merely to abolish the idea of truth which is shattered into an endless number of private truths; his aim is to replace this criterion with another, more effective criterion, that of the useful.
So, does relativism deny the existence of an objective truth, or just our ability to grasp it? Because, in the latter case, it would be the opposite: it would assume an absolute, unaccessible truth, right?